Yozhik Posted May 1, 2009 Share Posted May 1, 2009 I think you missed my point, it probably wasn't worded correctly. If a child who attends school and a child who is home schooled sit the same examination, then would home schooling make much of a difference? It could obviously mean the difference between grades but the actual content will be the same. Therefore a home educated child would need to be taught in the sameway a child who attends school is if they're to gain the qualification. Again, being a freeman might conflict with being able to take national examinations. National examinations are for members of society. Would it not be plausible for educational authorities to deny a child the right to sit an exam if they do not belong to the society? Given the Common Purpose leeching into our school system, it is not so much the lessons that are the issue with the current system, it is the non-curricular activities of government schooling that is the biggest issue. Home schooling does not even have to be done under the umbrella of "Freeman". It is a viable, and lawful alternative in the current UK system. So the national qualifications are absolutely available to home schooled students. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Darren Polla Posted May 1, 2009 Share Posted May 1, 2009 Wouldn't the EU have the right to deport anyone who didn't follow civil law? EU civil law is not Law over here mate. EU civil law is rules of a private contract between private corporations, via treaties. They are not the Laws of England. It is not the Law of the Land here in England. Therefore the Eu has no right to deport anyone who doesn't agree with it, clearly! Do your research into it and you will find the truth. You really do need to learn the difference between what is legal and what is lawfull, it will help you a great deal. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hallamton Posted May 1, 2009 Share Posted May 1, 2009 The other thing to consider is that when you talk about the UK or the EU ... and then pin it to the survival of the Freeman society, they're not really connected. What we're talking about are just choices of society. If I choose to leave and join a different society, I am free to do so. At which time, I will be governed by the rules and regulations of the society I am a member of. Sure, its a simplistic view ... but also an easy one to comprehend and a base from which we can ask questions and explore all of the information available. From my (very limited knowledge) I was under the impression that freeman society exists in the UK because the UK uses common law - meaning that, in a way, they are connected. Freemen can choose to leave "UK Society" (calling it this for arguments sake )to join freeman society because they're still governed by the basic common law. In the EU common law does not exist and civil law does - would this not mean the freeman society would have no choice but to follow civil laws meaning they aren't as liberal as they would be under common law? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Yozhik Posted May 1, 2009 Share Posted May 1, 2009 So am I right in saying that in the UK, although it isn't advertised, anyone is able to become a freeman without much conflict - so - If the UK were to join the EU, a potential freeman would find it more problematic to become "liberated" and may even have to use brute force? Wouldn't the EU have the right to deport anyone who didn't follow civil law? Without much conflict? He he he ... Naturally the powers that be, who have spent centuries hiding the truth and deceiving us all into believing a massive scam, will just roll over and wag their tails, like good little puppy dogs. Are you kidding? All you have to do is go grab some statutes and see how difficult they make it to find anything out. I mean ... seriously ... you could not write something any more obscure and as complicated, if you tried. You have to try incredibly hard to be as obtuse and as deceptive, as the authors of those wonderful pieces of fiction. How the hell is any Joe Average supposed to understand the statutes that he (or she) supposedly consents to and is governed by? Simple answer - you're not. That's the point. Isn't it just a little suspicious that the rules we supposedly agree to are intentionally written so we can never comprehend them? Why would you do that in an "open" democratic community? You wouldn't. So if they have spent that much time hiding the rules from us, you can be sure there will be more than a little squeal of displeasure when their house of cards comes tumbling down. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Yozhik Posted May 1, 2009 Share Posted May 1, 2009 From my (very limited knowledge) I was under the impression that freeman society exists in the UK because the UK uses common law - meaning that, in a way, they are connected. Freemen can choose to leave "UK Society" (calling it this for arguments sake )to join freeman society because they're still governed by the basic common law. In the EU common law does not exist and civil law does - would this not mean the freeman society would have no choice but to follow civil laws meaning they aren't as liberal as they would be under common law? Sorry, I do not comprehend the words "have no choice". What does it mean? I am a man. A sentient being. I have unalienable rights. I have choice. I can not be governed unless my consent is given. Please also distinguish between the UK (corporation) and England (land mass). The UK corporation has private rules and regulations called statutes. Company policies. They are called Acts for a good reason. Acts, Bills and Statutes. They are specifically named, with specific definitions and meanings. Nothing in legalese happens by accident. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hallamton Posted May 1, 2009 Share Posted May 1, 2009 So you know the EU is a fascist dictatorship by wanting to 'deport' anyone who doesn't agree with it. The education system that you think is all so much more important than homeschooling is dumbing kids down, and by the time they are grown up, physically only, they believe eveything polititions tell them, including the 'bull****' that they have to abide by the European Union. If they don't conform they will be deported, to what fate one can only guess. That's the education system for you, indoctrinating kids to submit to fascism. This is why home schooling is far better than state corporatised education. At least at home you can teach your kids to be free thinkers. Schools won't do that for anyone! The problem is not the EU. The problem is with the polititions over here pretending that we need the EU. It's good for us. Yeah right! I disagree with education "dumbing kids down". I would consider myself as a product of contemporary education, being only 22 and still attending university. I can tell you that I don't believe everything politicians - in fact I question the moajority of it. I don't think I'm alone either. Do you think that home educated children have the same social skills as school educated children? Unless you're home educating a class room of children, won't you be neglecting the right a child has to socialise and learn from their peers? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hallamton Posted May 1, 2009 Share Posted May 1, 2009 EU civil law is not Law over here mate. EU civil law is rules of a private contract between private corporations, via treaties. They are not the Laws of England. It is not the Law of the Land here in England. Therefore the Eu has no right to deport anyone who doesn't agree with it, clearly! Do your research into it and you will find the truth. You really do need to learn the difference between what is legal and what is lawfull, it will help you a great deal. I'm aware EU civil law is not UK common law. But my original post on this part of the thread was questioning what would happen if the UK joined completely with the EU. If a freeman is completely liberal apart from having to follow common law, what would happen if they were living in an area that doesn't have common law? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hallamton Posted May 1, 2009 Share Posted May 1, 2009 How the hell is any Joe Average supposed to understand the statutes that he (or she) supposedly consents to and is governed by? Simple answer - you're not. That's the point. Isn't it just a little suspicious that the rules we supposedly agree to are intentionally written so we can never comprehend them? Why would you do that in an "open" democratic community? You wouldn't.QUOTE] But it's easy enough to find different statues. All them are written (even if it is a perculier way of writing them) in the same way, so surely once you learn the lingo they're easier to comprehend? If that's the case then isn't it upto the person who wants to be liberated to learn the lingo instead of placing blame with the powers that be? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Yozhik Posted May 1, 2009 Share Posted May 1, 2009 But it's easy enough to find different statues. All them are written (even if it is a perculier way of writing them) in the same way, so surely once you learn the lingo they're easier to comprehend? If that's the case then isn't it upto the person who wants to be liberated to learn the lingo instead of placing blame with the powers that be? Why? Why do I have to learn a specific language to fully comprehend the rules and regulations, which I supposedly am governed by? Why do the statutes have to be written in a language that very few can truly comprehend? If it is English law, then should it not be written in English? Legalese is most definitely NOT English. It looks like English; even sounds like English ... but it is not English ... not by the wildest stretch of the imagination. So why are the statutes for English speakers written in legalese, which only those fully conversant in that language have any hope of fully consenting to? It's not a logical situation. We're not just talking about those who want to be liberated ... and that comment implies that unless you desire to be liberated, you're not. Which is actually closer to the truth than you probably intended. 99.9% of the people affected by the statutes, probably don't even comprehend them That's not by accident; that is by design. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Darren Polla Posted May 1, 2009 Share Posted May 1, 2009 EU legislation can impact on UK statute legislation only, because the UK corporation has consented through signing various treaties, delaing in private rules, given the force of law via more legislation and operating under the colour of law Nothing more! It cannot be the Law of the Land. 'Governments must obey the law, for the law makes government.' Notice how it doesn't say Acts or statutes or rules or legislation makes the government, but Laws. Laws are not made by polititions. The system doesn't work that way! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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