BritPat Posted July 5, 2010 Share Posted July 5, 2010 Assume 64 games assume 100 possible scores per game (0,0) to (9,9) chance of getting one result right 1/100 = 0.01 chance of getting 64 right is (0.01)^64= 10^-128 Assume possible range of scores to be (0,0) to (5,5) Chance of getting one result right is 1/36 chance of getting all 64 right is 2.5 x 10^-100 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
*_ash_* Posted July 5, 2010 Author Share Posted July 5, 2010 Assume 64 games assume 100 possible scores per game (0,0) to (9,9) chance of getting one result right 1/100 = 0.01 chance of getting 64 right is (0.01)^64= 10^-128 Assume possible range of scores to be (0,0) to (5,5) Chance of getting one result right is 1/36 chance of getting all 64 right is 2.5 x 10^-100 Brilliant BritPat. You've added a 4th perspective. Which is what I started with, without realising that I'd got the original question wrong (result/score) (pointed out by AlexC) (0.01)^64= 10^-128 is spectacularly low, as I thought. Right, now geek post done, I can look at hair colour/sexual attraction posts. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ValleyBoy Posted July 5, 2010 Share Posted July 5, 2010 So would the world have enough cash to pay you out , if you won and the bet was fair ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeadingNorth Posted July 5, 2010 Share Posted July 5, 2010 Yes - the winner got 100m if they were 100% rights, if no-one was 100% right then the best guesses got 1m. I think by "if the bet were fair," he means if the payout was something approaching the genuine odds of success. And no, the world would not have enough money in that case. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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