Israel's blockade of Gaza is cracking

[callippo]

any chance of you telling us why you, and every other two bit retard that posts this garbage on internet forums, maintain that the Khazar conversions had anything to do with Jewish communities in western Europe a thousand miles to the west, when Jewish communities were first established in Europe half a millenia before the Khazar conversions happened?

[MAMALOCHA!]

This is a quote from your link.

 

Jews were able to flourish in Khazaria because of the tolerance of the Khazar rulers, who invited Byzantine and Persian Jewish refugees to settle in their country. Due to the influence of these refugees, the Khazars found the Jewish religion to be appealing and adopted Judaism in large numbers.

 

It would also suggest that they converted because of the large influx of Jews, running away from their homeland.

 

Nobody can be difinative on the number of jews that migrated to khazaria but the quote you used (highlighted) suggests more than just the elite converted, what of them? how do they claim middle east as a promised land ? (ashkenazi)

[truthlogic]

World history is mostly theory, historians can theorise what happened over a 1000 years ago but they can never be 100% accurate, new evidence and discoveries can change world history.

Khazar Empire This site doesn't agree with your theory.

 

The 10th century Persian historian Ibn al-Faqih reported that "all the Khazars are Jews." Notwithstanding this statement, some scholars[21] believe that only the upper classes converted to Judaism; there is some support for this in contemporary Muslim texts.[22]

 

"But the most striking characteristic of the Khazars was the apparent adoption of Judaism by the khagan and the greater part of the ruling class in about 740. " quote brittanica

 

http://m.eb.com/redirect?type=topic&id=316553

 

sorry to burst every ones bubble , but the fact remains european Jews are converts ( not that there is anything wrong with that )

 

Ashkenazi means German Jew

[truthlogic]

any chance of you telling us why you, and every other two bit retard that posts this garbage on internet forums, maintain that the Khazar conversions had anything to do with Jewish communities in western Europe a thousand miles to the west, when Jewish communities were first established in Europe half a millenia before the Khazar conversions happened?

 

Yeah what ever ! It rains more in isreal than in Sheffield !

 

Don't crack me up please !

 

You see when you start to blindly support a murderous regime you also tend to use lies in order to make your side of the story sound more credible

 

One lie will always lead to more

 

I suggest you stop now

[callippo]

of course it means German Jew, i.e. Jews that migrated to first southern Europe and eventually developed their own distinct form of Judaic customs and language (i.e. the Germanic language, Yiddish) in central Europe, especially following the expulsions from England and France in the late 13th and early 14th centuries, which boosted their numbers. They coalesed in central and eastern Europe, because there wasn't anywhere else for them to go. Conversion didn't come into it all.

 

centuries later Sephardic (boosted by the 200,000 Jews that were expelled from Spain in 1492) and Ashkenazi communities would be found living quite seperately within modern day nation states, in fact the first ever Jewish Emancipation Proclamation following the French Revolution, in which Jews were declared equal citizens under the law for the first time ever in Europe, classified Sephardic and Ashkenazi Jews seperately.

[MAMALOCHA!]

any chance of you telling us why you, and every other two bit retard that posts this garbage on internet forums, maintain that the Khazar conversions had anything to do with Jewish communities in western Europe a thousand miles to the west, when Jewish communities were first established in Europe half a millenia before the Khazar conversions happened?

 

What's with the name calling you trying to get this thread closed ?

Khazar empire was tolerant and european countries weren't so the jews that were in europe went to khazaria and the khazars converted to judaism (ashkenazi) simple really

[truthlogic]

of course it means German Jew, i.e. Jews that migrated to first southern Europe and eventually developed their own distinct form of Judaic customs and language (i.e. the Germanic language, Yiddish) in central Europe, especially following the expulsions from England and France in the late 13th and early 14th centuries, which boosted their numbers. They coalesed in central and eastern Europe, because there wasn't anywhere else for them to go. Conversion didn't come into it all.

 

centuries later Sephardic (boosted by the 200,000 Jews that were expelled from Spain in 1492) and Ashkenazi communities would be found living quite seperately within modern day nation states, in fact the first ever Jewish Emancipation Proclamation following the French Revolution, in which Jews were declared equal citizens under the law for the first time ever in Europe, classified Sephardic and Ashkenazi Jews seperately.

 

 

I wonder if the name Nazi is deprived from the Word Ashkenazi ?

[callippo]

why were they (Ashkenazis) called 'German Jews' then, when they were a thousand miles to the east in Khazaria?

 

and how come Jewish communities were established in Europe several centuries before the Khazar civilisation even came into being?

[callippo]

I wonder if the name Nazi is deprived from the Word Ashkenazi ?

 

nothing to do with it. Ashkenazi is ancient Hebrew in origin. The expression 'Nazi' wasn't coined until about 1930 in Germany, as an abbreviation of National Socialist.

[MAMALOCHA!]

why were they (Ashkenazis) called 'German Jews' then, when they were a thousand miles to the east in Khazaria?

 

and how come Jewish communities were established in Europe several centuries before the Khazar civilisation even came into being?

 

when was the term coined ?