RootsBooster Posted September 27, 2011 Share Posted September 27, 2011 Easy: because there's eyewitness testimony available. Unless you don't agree with the concept of eyewitness testimony? If so, don't tell the Court at your trial! I don't think a court would accept a story, written about someone who died way before the authors decided to write it, as testimony. EDIT: For some reason I originally said "before the authors were born" Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jeffrey Shaw Posted September 27, 2011 Share Posted September 27, 2011 I don't think a court would accept a story, written about someone who died way before the authors were born, as testimony. I agree, so that rules-out the 'Gospels'. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sccsux Posted September 27, 2011 Share Posted September 27, 2011 You can't, any more than you can about any case reported in the Press. Plus they are all- not surprisingly- dead. So no reliable witnesses then. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tony Erikson Posted September 27, 2011 Author Share Posted September 27, 2011 Think I won the debate with Jeffrey. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Random Shout Posted September 28, 2011 Share Posted September 28, 2011 There actually is loads of evidence that Jesus existed you need to watch more of those Discovery channels. I've just googled the percentage of Christians of the U.K and many are very similar with about 70% of the UK who are Christian look at this this is just one of them - http://www.eauk.org/media/70pc-britons-say-theyre-christian.cfm I disagree and even athiests disagree with the BBC axing the BC/AD believers or not it's just not on. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jeffrey Shaw Posted September 28, 2011 Share Posted September 28, 2011 So no reliable witnesses then. Oh, yes, there were. But I'm not aware of any current Court case needing their personal testimony- so don't lose more sleep about it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jeffrey Shaw Posted September 28, 2011 Share Posted September 28, 2011 There actually is loads of evidence that Jesus existed Of course; but see my previous post #85. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
northernboy Posted September 28, 2011 Share Posted September 28, 2011 I don't find BCE offensive, just pointless. If 20 BCE means 20 years before (the date we have chosen as being) the birth of Christ, why not just say so and avoid all this "Common Era" rubbish! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jeffrey Shaw Posted September 28, 2011 Share Posted September 28, 2011 I don't find BCE offensive, just pointless. If 20 BCE means 20 years before (the date we have chosen as being) the birth of Christ, why not just say so and avoid all this "Common Era" rubbish! Easy. Jesus of Nazareth did not have a surname. No-one did in those days. 'Christos' is the Greek for 'messiah'. So to append 'christ' to the name of Jesus indicates acceptance of his messianic status- which he never claimed: that role was thrust upon him three or four centuries after his death by the four gospel writers. 'BC' is thus tendentious as is 'AD' [= anno domini = from the year of the L-d']. BCE/CE do not have these associated problems. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Agbus Posted September 28, 2011 Share Posted September 28, 2011 So no reliable witnesses then. No, they are all dead including the Christians Nero threw to the lions and other beasts. Tacitus wrote about it though. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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