HeadingNorth Posted December 1, 2011 Share Posted December 1, 2011 Astonishing, you actually believe these things dont you? More to the point, he's arguing with someone else who also believes them but has differences of opinion on what they are. Those who don't believe in them at all are probably best advised to just sit back and watch them tear each other's arguments to pieces. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jeffrey Shaw Posted December 1, 2011 Share Posted December 1, 2011 No need for disputation. See my previous post. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jeffrey Shaw Posted December 1, 2011 Share Posted December 1, 2011 I doubt it would have been all that different before the romans, I would guess the only reason we don't know about the various local kings (and possibly queens, the Britons bucked that trend, although not very often) is because we hardly have any records at all. No. It wasn't the Vikings' Forte. Nor the Faroes'. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CXC3000 Posted December 1, 2011 Share Posted December 1, 2011 The Qu'ran was not written at the time of Moses, and Moses did not speak Arabic. Whatever words actually came out of his own mouth, "Muslim" would not have been one of them. That's an Arabic translation of what he supposedly said. Ok, now that's ridiculous, you cannot put forward a 7th century text as evidence that someone who allegedly existed thousands of years before that used a particular word. You seem to forget: the Quran is the Word of God; what you read is what God Has Stated. He (via the Quran) tells us of past events as well as future one. And the word from the Book is 'Muslaymeen'; that's how it's pronounced in the Verse I gave. So the term 'Muslim' was used thousands of years ago Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeadingNorth Posted December 1, 2011 Share Posted December 1, 2011 I doubt it would have been all that different before the romans, I would guess the only reason we don't know about the various local kings (and possibly queens, the Britons bucked that trend, although not very often) is because we hardly have any records at all. I'm sure you are right, in that various tribal leaders would have slaughtered, usurped and conquered each other. It is a fairly safe bet that none of them ever came remotely close to ruling over the whole of what is now England, so from that perspective (only) I disregard them as being possible "true kings" even if they weren't slaughtering, usurping and conquering each other. At best, they could be "true leaders of the Somewhere-north-of-Bolton Tribe." Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flamingjimmy Posted December 1, 2011 Share Posted December 1, 2011 Also: even if Jesus were a Divine Son (which he wasn't), and even if the Divinity were Jewish (which He's not), there's no connection in religious status terms. You see, Judaism is defined matrilineally; one is a Jew if one's mother is a Jewess (i.e. irrespective of the father's religion). If that's true then there cannot be any jews at all, unless God is a jewish woman, because according to the mythology she/he created the first people. And if that were true then everyone is a Jew, because we are all descended from eve. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeadingNorth Posted December 1, 2011 Share Posted December 1, 2011 You seem to forget: the Quran is the Word of God; what you read is what God Has Stated. You have provided no evidence to support that claim; and Aqbus directly contradicts it by saying that the New Testament is the Word of God and the Qu'ran is a load of rubbish. Why is your claim superior to his? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jeffrey Shaw Posted December 1, 2011 Share Posted December 1, 2011 He (via the Quran) tells us of past events as well as future one. And the word from the Book** is 'Muslaymeen'; that's how it's pronounced in the Verse I gave. ** Are you referring to a Biblical verse, please- which one, in particular? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
f0rd Posted December 1, 2011 Share Posted December 1, 2011 As mentioned in an earlier post, the word 'Muslim' was around at the time of Moses An other source other than the Koran? As the Hebrew to submit is 'anah'. So sure a verb to submit existed, but to try and tie in with 'Muslim' is a bit of a reach. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jeffrey Shaw Posted December 1, 2011 Share Posted December 1, 2011 An other source other than the Koran? As the Hebrew to submit is 'anah'. So sure a verb to submit existed, but to try and tie in with 'Muslim' is a bit of a reach. 'Anah' means 'please'. It derives from a verb meaning 'to ask'. So? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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