spooky3 Posted December 14, 2011 Share Posted December 14, 2011 Hey, it's home time CXC will be on soon! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeadingNorth Posted December 14, 2011 Share Posted December 14, 2011 I'm intrigued. How do the other countries' legal systems have applicability (or even any relevance) in Israel, please? It isn't "other countries'" legal systems that are relevant here; it's the UN. Invasion and occupancy of territory which is not yours, is always illegal unless the UN passes a resolution to authorise it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CXC3000 Posted December 14, 2011 Author Share Posted December 14, 2011 Hey, it's home time CXC will be on soon! Already here ! - already here ! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
spooky3 Posted December 14, 2011 Share Posted December 14, 2011 Already here ! - already here ! No friends to play with? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jeffrey Shaw Posted December 14, 2011 Share Posted December 14, 2011 For once CX is right. In Europe at least, trade deals with Israel have been used to sell goods from settlements as "made in Israel", which has been ruled as illegal** and such goods cannot be labeled as israeli in the eu and are not allowed to be imported under eu-israeli trade agreements. ** Er, that's just it: "ruled illegal" by whom? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jeffrey Shaw Posted December 14, 2011 Share Posted December 14, 2011 It isn't "other countries'" legal systems that are relevant here; it's the UN. Invasion and occupancy of territory which is not yours, is always illegal unless the UN passes a resolution to authorise it. No, it's not. The UNO does not make any laws, being a mere treaty organisation. NOTE: there is no such thing as 'international law'. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andygardener Posted December 14, 2011 Share Posted December 14, 2011 ** Er, that's just it: "ruled illegal" by whom? In our case the ECJ. The court has not made a ruling on the legal status of israeli settlements in the west bank but it has ruled (quite properly) that trade and tarriffing agreements between the EU and Israel apply only to goods from Israel itself not from settlements in the territories. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jeffrey Shaw Posted December 14, 2011 Share Posted December 14, 2011 In our case the ECJ. The court has not made a ruling on the legal status of israeli settlements in the west bank but it has ruled (quite properly) that trade and tarriffing agreements between the EU and Israel apply only to goods from Israel itself not from settlements in the territories. Yet the ECJ has no competence, you see, as it's not governed by a legal system nor are any of its 'laws' legislated. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andygardener Posted December 14, 2011 Share Posted December 14, 2011 Yet the ECJ has no competence, you see, as it's not governed by a legal system nor are any of its 'laws' legislated. I'm not a great fan of the EU and many of it's institutions however the EU does exist and the ECJ is a supreme arbiter of the rules put in place by the various treaties etc that allow the EU to exist. So yes it does have competance to rule on this matter and it's ruling, more importantly, is factually correct. The EU-Israel trade treaties aply only to goods wholly from inside the 67 borders. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
chorba Posted December 14, 2011 Share Posted December 14, 2011 ........................... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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