Badlittlepup Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 It was George V in 1936! He was killed by a lethal drug overdose administered by his doctor. Is the OP not counting that for some reason? Maybe he means any British monarch, not a monarch of all Britain. Maybe it's James IV of Scotland at Flodden? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeadingNorth Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 There's no "allegedly" about it! Never proven - or disproven - in a court of law, chiefly because nobody saw any point in finding out. The man was dying anyway, and if his pain relief killed him before the illness did, it made no significant difference to anything. That sort of pain-relief treatment used to be commonplace, but is nowadays entirely illegal and likely to see a doctor on a murder charge. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JFKvsNixon Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Is the OP not counting that for some reason? Maybe he means any British monarch, not a monarch of all Britain. Maybe it's James IV of Scotland at Flodden? George V was born in Britain. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JFKvsNixon Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Never proven - or disproven - in a court of law, chiefly because nobody saw any point in finding out. The man was dying anyway, and if his pain relief killed him before the illness did, it made no significant difference to anything. That sort of pain-relief treatment used to be commonplace, but is nowadays entirely illegal and likely to see a doctor on a murder charge. No, it is still very commonplace. If the treatment is a recognised treatment, ie an opiod for severe pain, and the patient is close to death and suffering from severe pain, then treatment will be given even though it will most probably result in the patient dyeing. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeadingNorth Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 No, it is still very commonplace. If the treatment is a recognised treatment, ie an opiod for severe pain, and the patient is close to death and suffering from severe pain, then treatment will be given even though it will most probably result in the patient dyeing. Yes, true, but the doctor will no longer overprescribe; the penalties for doing so and causing a death are awfully harsh. That's what a lot of the legal talk about assisted dying centres on. A century ago, assisted dying wasn't a problem at all. So far as the OP's question goes, though, I am almost entirely certain that "morphine overdose" will not be the official cause of death on King George V's death certificate. There doesn't seem to be much doubt that his doctor killed him on purpose, to put him out of his misery; but officially he died of lung disease or some such. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JFKvsNixon Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Yes, true, but the doctor will no longer overprescribe; the penalties for doing so and causing a death are awfully harsh. That's what a lot of the legal talk about assisted dying centres on. A century ago, assisted dying wasn't a problem at all. I don't think that there is an upper dose for prescription of opioids, due to the constant building of tolerance levels, the dose to ease the pain can vary from person to person. What may kill one person may not touch the pain in someone else. The issue with assisted dying is when the individual isn't in severe pain, then as I said earlier opioid medication isn't the recognised treatment, and as such cannot be given. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
shanes teeth Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Never proven - or disproven - in a court of law, chiefly because nobody saw any point in finding out. The man was dying anyway, and if his pain relief killed him before the illness did, it made no significant difference to anything. That sort of pain-relief treatment used to be commonplace, but is nowadays entirely illegal and likely to see a doctor on a murder charge. I didn't realise that this fact had ever been disputed.As you say,it was commonplace and one would hope that it still is. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LeMaquis Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Was it Freddie Mercury? He was killed by AIDS while still Queen. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Glennis Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Charles I was; the others were kings only of England. I would have said Charles I Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Badlittlepup Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 George V was born in Britain. Yes I know that, I worded it badly. What I meant was perhaps the OP is not including him because his official cause of death is not being killed or it's not been proven. Separately to that maybe the OP didn't mean British monarch as a monarch of all Britain but as a monarch of England, Scotland, Wales or all three. Hope that makes it clearer. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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