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5% of British MSMs have HIV.


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Half the 6,280 is 3,140 so if 3140 is 1 in 20 that means there are only 62800 people who fit under the term "MSM". Is this right?

 

Does the term exclude men who are actually gay, or is it only as said above men who consider themselves straight? The lowest estimates I could find for gay men in the UK are somewhere around 2%, which would mean over a million?

 

No because the numbers refer to new cases over the year. I don't know the proportion of gays who fit the MSM category. But if it is half of 2% who you say are gay that means 1% of the population is responsible for 50% of the HIV. Now that is a shocking statistic.

I suppose what is more worrying is 5% is a significant number. When 0.1% of the population suffered from HIV there was little chance of encountering it. But once you get to a 1 in 20 chance that becomes a significant risk. As it takes 2 to tango it means 1 in 10 MSM encounters involve someone with AIDS/HIV.

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MSM is a term used by the blood transfusion services for a while now, - they weren't allowed to ask people if they were homosexual, as this could be seen as discriminatory...

 

So the question "Are you a man who has ever had sex with another man" was asked instead of "Are you homosexual or bi-sexual".....

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Sex only on Monday?

Another neologism is 'the sex industry' (and 'sex worker'). It's just a euphemism for 'prostitution' (and 'prostitute'), isn't it.

 

Yup, prostitutes who only work Mondays, that's right!

 

---------- Post added 29-11-2012 at 16:12 ----------

 

MSM is a term used by the blood transfusion services for a while now, - they weren't allowed to ask people if they were homosexual, as this could be seen as discriminatory...

 

So the question "Are you a man who has ever had sex with another man" was asked instead of "Are you homosexual or bi-sexual".....

 

Makes more sense in a clinical context.

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MSM is a term used by the blood transfusion services for a while now, - they weren't allowed to ask people if they were homosexual, as this could be seen as discriminatory...

 

So the question "Are you a man who has ever had sex with another man" was asked instead of "Are you homosexual or bi-sexual".....

 

It's nonsense.

 

That's like saying "I've never slept with a gay man, but I've slept with a man who has."

 

How can asking someone if they are homosexual be discriminatory, long as you ask everyone, there is, by definition, no discrimination.

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It's nonsense.

 

That's like saying "I've never slept with a gay man, but I've slept with a man who has."

 

How can asking someone if they are homosexual be discriminatory, long as you ask everyone, there is, by definition, no discrimination.

 

Isn't the point that if the transfusion service asks using the MSM terminology they will get a more accurate picture as there appear to be men who sleep with men but do not consider themselves gay? Or have I got that wrong?

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It's nonsense.

 

That's like saying "I've never slept with a gay man, but I've slept with a man who has."

 

How can asking someone if they are homosexual be discriminatory, long as you ask everyone, there is, by definition, no discrimination.

 

Because telling someone they can't donate blood because of being homosexual is discriminatory - as it's on the basis of their sexuality....

 

But if the question "Are you a man who has ever had sex with another man" is asked, it's not discriminatory, as it's on the basis of their behaviour, not their sexuality....

 

Does that make any sense at all????!!!!!! :) :)

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