Guy outsources his job gets sack, employers who do it get praised?

[eckerslike]

Stating the blindingly obvious doesn't necessarily mean it's a bad thing.

 

Yes I'm trying to imagine a cop, security guard, surgeon, airline pilot or the like sub contracting their job out to their mates. I think this thread verges on the most truly barking that we've had on here.

[Magilla]

The point I'm making is that the rules *are* different for workers and their bosses, for good reason. Why wouldn't they be?

 

A complete non-point thread, as you say, barking.

[barleycorn]

Forgot to mention he broke the data protection act too by disclosing computer security to a third party.

 

Do they have a DPA in the states?

 

jb

[Titanic99]

The employer owns the company and sets the rules.

 

The employee has signed a contract that they must abide by.

 

If I want to outsource my job I can, I'm self employed.

 

Think about it old bean.

 

Interestingly the article says that the employee is no longer with the company, not that he was sacked.

 

Doesn't the employer sign the same contract to employ the person, yet he is able to outsource the work abroad at any point to increase their profits.

 

---------- Post added 18-01-2013 at 17:06 ----------

 

Entirely spot on. And that's the way it should be.

 

Why should an employer be able to break a contract of employment to outsource work, but an employee can't?

[TJC1]

Doesn't the employer sign the same contract to employ the person, yet he is able to outsource the work abroad at any point to increase their profits.

 

---------- Post added 18-01-2013 at 17:06 ----------

 

 

Why should an employer be able to break a contract of employment to outsource work, but an employee can't?

 

An employer doesn't have the same contract. And anyway, the employer paid the employee and the employee took that 4/5 as profit. The employee owes that money back.

 

---------- Post added 18-01-2013 at 17:13 ----------

 

Doesn't the employer sign the same contract to employ the person, yet he is able to outsource the work abroad at any point to increase their profits.

 

---------- Post added 18-01-2013 at 17:06 ----------

 

 

Why should an employer be able to break a contract of employment to outsource work, but an employee can't?

 

In other words the owner doesn't have a contract with the employee. how the owner runs his/hers business is nothing to do with the employee.

[Titanic99]

An employer doesn't have the same contract. And anyway, the employer paid the employee and the employee took that 4/5 as profit. The employee owes that money back.

 

---------- Post added 18-01-2013 at 17:13 ----------

 

 

In other words the owner doesn't have a contract with the employee. how the owner runs his/hers business is nothing to do with the employee.

 

My employer has signed exactly the same contract as me, it has outsourced some work to a country abroad and made people redundant here.

 

Is that acceptable?

[TJC1]

Do they have a DPA in the states?

 

jb

 

Dunno. Probably.

 

---------- Post added 18-01-2013 at 17:27 ----------

 

My employer has signed exactly the same contract as me, it has outsourced some work to a country abroad and made people redundant here.

 

Is that acceptable?

 

They have. It's called a contract of employment. It's your contract.

[Titanic99]

Dunno. Probably.

 

---------- Post added 18-01-2013 at 17:27 ----------

 

 

They have. It's called a contract of employment. It's your contract.

 

I'm sorry but I don't understand your response so I'll try again.

 

Both my employer and I signed the same contract of employment which is presumably standard across departments.

 

In another department they have made some staff redundant and outsourced the work they did to a country in South East Asia.

 

So please explain to me why you believe it acceptable for them to break this contract of employment, but not for this guy who appears to have done the same thing as they have.

[SevenRivers]

Genius, should give him a raise.

[BoroB]

My employer has signed exactly the same contract as me, it has outsourced some work to a country abroad and made people redundant here.

 

Is that acceptable?

 

Totally acceptable.

 

You have a contract with your employer that you both have to adhere to.

 

Your employer has outsourced some work overseas with a seperate contract that both parties have to adhere to.

 

No problem if all parties sticj to their side of the bargain.

 

If you decide to outsource the work you have agreed to do to a third party, behind your employers back, then a problem arises.

 

---------- Post added 18-01-2013 at 18:33 ----------

 

I'm sorry but I don't understand your response so I'll try again.

 

Both my employer and I signed the same contract of employment which is presumably standard across departments.

 

In another department they have made some staff redundant and outsourced the work they did to a country in South East Asia.

 

So please explain to me why you believe it acceptable for them to break this contract of employment, but not for this guy who appears to have done the same thing as they have.

 

No contract of employment has been broken - the job as it existed has ceased to exist in the UK. Rightly or wrongly this happens all the time and so long as the company abides by employment laws there is nothing illegal taking place.

 

The guy in question has not done the same thing as your employers have.