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Benefits in Britain. fact and fiction


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I don't hold with that either. Many of our older citizens have worked all of their lives and made a positive contribution to society. They've paid the taxes requested of them too.

 

We do have a set of freeloaders who should be forced to pay more. They are mostly in the upper echelons of big companies, or managing hedge funds, or are shareholders of tax avoiding companies like Boots. If they all paid their fair share, we could afford a much more civillised society. The time is coming...

 

No they haven't, most OAP's in this region have spent the 80's and 90's on strike or on sickness / incapacity benefit.

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We do have a set of freeloaders who should be forced to pay more.

 

This is down to Government setting rules for who gets what. Its not the claimants fault that the Government are being generous, with our money. If the Government take too much money from claimants, they wont get re-elected.

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Oh great, now it's pensioner bashing... I hate to mention this but you too will be a pensioner one day - be careful what you wish for...

 

Yes he will, but with equivalent of £142.70 per week and all his rent, heating, electricity and council tax paid plus free travel, TV License and other bonuses he would be very grateful and wouldn't have the audacity to complain that he's on the breadline.

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This is down to Government setting rules for who gets what. Its not the claimants fault that the Government are being generous, with our money. If the Government take too much money from claimants, they wont get re-elected.

 

I wasn't talking about claimants.

 

You should read to the end of a post before replying. It helps.

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Have I missed something here?

 

If 1% of households have been workless for two generation and there are only 15,000 of these households in the UK, then there can only be 1,500,000 households in the UK which can’t be correct.

 

There are about 25 million homes in the UK.

 

It's 1% of workless households, not 1% of all households.

 

Yes you have. As you quoted yourself it's 1% of workless households, not 1% of ALL households.

 

Maybe you wanted it to be 1% of all households to fit in with your belief system. The reality is it's 0.06% of all households.

 

It's not very clear is it?

 

It says on the link - Patterns of work in 'working-age households' (which to me suggests ALL working-age households (Smith missed out the underlined bit), otherwise it would say 'percentage of workless households that have 1 or more generations of workless people') - then having figures of 82% working households, then it switches to workless households, and puts them at 17% one-generation workless, then 1% two-generation workless.

 

LeMarquis and Illy, the chart says 1% working age households, then the text says 'Under 1% of workless households might have two generations who have never worked – about 15,000'

 

These are two different things.

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